The anti-FV challenge: Part IV
(Opening Reminder: If you want to take a stab at making an anti-FV argument in accordance with this challenge, or if you simply want to pass along someone else's argument to me, then please e-mail me at xonhostetter@gmail.com. Cheers!)
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Continuing Introduction
I have taken this method of analyzing anti-FV arguments, in some form, out for a bit of a spin in some online discussions, and it has been suggested that my analysis of anti-FV arguments is somewhat ad hoc and that it like Frankenstein turns into a monster I cannot control. My "philosophical contortions are following an illegitimate hermeneutic of our confessions," whereby I end up making it impossible to show that Wilkins could EVER be outside the Confession, no matter what he ever actually said or wrote. "At this point I literally don’t see how Wilkins could be outside WS even if HE WAS TRYING to be an Arminian."
I don't think this is at all the case, and to show that it is not let's use two examples of contradictions that we should "expect" to be able to show, and which in fact we can quite easily. For the first, we'll follow the commenter I quoted above and try to show a contradiction between "Arminianism" (admittedly a little vague in this day and age) and the Westminster Standards. For the second, I have literally put a few "well known" contradictions in a hat, and drawn one out at random. The selection is Luther and Zwingli's dispute at Marburg over the Lord's Supper.
To be clear, I'm being a bit lazy here. I'm not tracking down precise quotes the way I would expect an anti-FVer to do. But this is because I simply want to show the basic format of how the arguments should go; I don't think it is necessary to provide detailed citations of everything because the contradictions I am trying to show are so commonly recognized already. However, I will happily do more of the 'leg work' if anyone requests it.
First, then, to Arminianism and the Westminster Standards.(And, as might be expected, I responded to this comment re: Arminianism in that thread at the time as well. I'm basically taking my argument in that comment and converting it into "the template" here.)
Basic Dossier
Alleged Contradiction Between: classical Arminianism / Westminster Confession
(Like I said, I'm going to cheat a bit here. I should really name a particular Arminian(s), but I take this particular example to be utterly non-controversial and so I'm trying to save time. If anyone honestly wants to challenge me for a particular quote from a particular Arminian, then I will happily provide one!)
Source: Xon Hostetter, comment at Greenbaggins
Contradicted Proposition: There is no group of people whom God has predestined from the foundation of the world, based on nothing foreseen within the people themselves, to live eternally with Him in glory. (pro/contra)
Arminian source material:
None provided(Again, I know I'm cheating here!)
Confessional source material:
"By the decree of God, for the manifestation of his glory, some men and angels are predestinated unto everlasting life, and others foreordained to everlasting death. These angels and men, thus predestinated and foreordained, are particularly and unchangeably designed: and their number is so certain and definite that it cannot be either increased or diminished. Those of mankind that are predestinated unto life, God, before the foundation of the world was laid, according to his eternal and immutable purpose, and the secret counsel and good pleasure of his will, hath chosen in Christ, unto everlasting glory, out of his free grace and love alone, without any foresight of faith or good works, or perseverance in either of them, or any other thing in the creature, as conditions, or causes moving him thereunto. (WCF III.3-5)----------------------------------------------
Argument Verbatim
We could easily show an (honest) Arminian to be out of bounds with the Confession, because an Arminianism affirms (at least) the following propositions:------------------------------------------------------
A1: There is no group of people whom God has predestined from the foundation of the world, based on nothing within the people themselves, to live eternally with Him in glory.
A2: Christ’s work satisfying the law of God and dying as the substitute for sin was meant by God to apply to every single person who ever lives.
A3: There is no effectual call to faith in Christ which God makes to a person without that person cooperating with the call in a way that does not involve any assistance from God at all.
And we could easily show that the Confession denies A1, A2, and A3. (These three cover the “U L I” of TULIP. The “P” and the “T” are more complicated, because some Arminians believe in the “P” and some (Wesleyans) believe in the “T” at least in a theoretical sense. We could still give propositions for these Arminian positions too, and these also would clearly contradict the Confession, but doing so would take more time and I don’t see the need.)
The Confession’s teaching that there are elect people, chosen by God based on nothing in themselves, contradicts A1. Its teaching that Christ’s atoning work was intended only to apply fully to those elect people contradicts A2. And its teaching that God sovereignly and irresistably brings about faith in elect people contradicts A3. (Of course, for the full argument we would need to go to the relevant portions of the Confession and convert them into “propositions”, too…but I really don’t think that’s necessary here.)
Evaluation
Not to toot my own horn or anything, but this seems fairly airtight to me. The dossier above is only for "A1", but I imagine we could do it up for A2 and A3 as well. But, if anyone thinks that either a. I have given a proposition an Arminian would not affirm, or b. the Westminster Standards do not really deny the proposition, then I'm all ears to hear your reasons for thinking so. But until someone points me to an error in what I have said here, I consider the contradiction between Arminianism and the Westminster Confession regarding election to be established.
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Now, let's look at a second example if we like.(Expand to read about Luther and Zwingli, if you dare. If not, you're done with this post. You may pass "Go" if you like, but I don't have your money.)
Basic Dossier
Alleged Contradiction Between: Luther / Zwingli
Source: Xon Hostetter, here
Contradicted Proposition: In the rite of communion, Christ is present with the elements. (pro/contra)
Luther source material:
Zwingli source material:
Argument Verbatim
Evaluation
Again, there's more that could be said; I'm just trying to sketch out how the argument would work within the parameters of the template. It should not be difficult at all to find the appropriate quotes of Luther and Zwingli which show the different ways they are using "is" and the different ways they conceive of Christ's presence in the rite of the Supper. (Zwingli, in particular, wrote explicitly about the word "is" in the passage in question, breaking it down into several possible meanings, and then arguing for the one he thought was correct (the "symbolic").)
So here we have an anlysis of different "usage definitions" working in the opposite direction than how it worked in earlier analysis (such as of the CCP Memorial argument against Wilkins). In this case, the superficial and equivocating reading makes the two thinkers appear to be compatible, and a closer reading reveals them to actually be in contradiction. (Whereas, in the CCP Memorial argument against Wilking regarding election, the superficial and equivocating reading was to see a contradiction, whereas closer analysis revealed compatibility.)
In any case, this is how arguments can be formatted to work within the suggested template while fulfilling rules I-III.
I think these four posts (this one and the three before it) can be allowed to stand as an introduction, more ore less, to what I'm trying to do here. From here out, we'll start looking at various anti-FV arguments and see if they pass "the challenge."
Alleged Contradiction Between: Luther / Zwingli
Source: Xon Hostetter, here
Contradicted Proposition: In the rite of communion, Christ is present with the elements. (pro/contra)
Luther source material:
None provided; non-controversial(Again, I know I'm cheating here!)
Zwingli source material:
non provided; non-controversial----------------------------------------------
Argument Verbatim
The famous disagreement between the two Reformers at Marburg featured a sometimes heated dispute over the meaning of Christ's statement at the Last Supper: "This is my body." If we were to take this statement as our proposition, then there might seem to be no contradiction between Luther and Zwingli since both would say that the proposition "[The bread used in communion] is Christ's body" is true. But here we have the same obligation from earlier analyses to make sure that we understand the "usage definitions" of all the words used. When Luther and Zwingli respectively say "The bread is Christ's body," are they using all the words in the same way? If not, then we need to find out what their different meanings are and then re-phrase the proposition.--------------------------------------------
In this case, the difference is a Clintonian one over the meaning of "is." Zwingli argues explicitly in his writings on this topic that "is" is subject to several meanings, depending on context, before offering what he thinks is the properly understood meaning in Jesus' words of institution. Zwingli's answer is that it is the "symbolic" meaning of "is," where "is" carries a meaning similar to "represents." E.g., love is a long road, etc. Zwingli does seem to believe (or at least, some Zwingli scholars contend that he does) that Christ is present in the faith of the partakers of the Lord's Supper, but He has no literal presence in the elements of bread and wine to speak of. So clearly Zwingli would deny our proposition (in the Dossier): "In the rite of communion, Christ is present with the elements."
As for Luther, his consubstantialist doctrine is equally famous, particularly his formulation that Christ is present "in, with and under" the elements. Whatever exactly this means, it is clear that Luther is positing a "real" presence of Christ in the bread and wine. This is why Luther jumped up and down on Christ's words of institution, reportedly resorting at one point to angry repetition: This is my body! This is my body! Luther is using "is" in a more "regular" way, whereby one thing is identified with another. (The ways in which Luther's doctrine differs from Catholic transsubstantiation is beyond our scope here.) So Luther clearly would affirm our proposition: "In the rite of communion, Christ is present with the elements."
Thus, Luther and Zwingli clearly disagree with one another regarding the presence of Christ in the Lord's Supper.
Evaluation
Again, there's more that could be said; I'm just trying to sketch out how the argument would work within the parameters of the template. It should not be difficult at all to find the appropriate quotes of Luther and Zwingli which show the different ways they are using "is" and the different ways they conceive of Christ's presence in the rite of the Supper. (Zwingli, in particular, wrote explicitly about the word "is" in the passage in question, breaking it down into several possible meanings, and then arguing for the one he thought was correct (the "symbolic").)
So here we have an anlysis of different "usage definitions" working in the opposite direction than how it worked in earlier analysis (such as of the CCP Memorial argument against Wilkins). In this case, the superficial and equivocating reading makes the two thinkers appear to be compatible, and a closer reading reveals them to actually be in contradiction. (Whereas, in the CCP Memorial argument against Wilking regarding election, the superficial and equivocating reading was to see a contradiction, whereas closer analysis revealed compatibility.)
In any case, this is how arguments can be formatted to work within the suggested template while fulfilling rules I-III.
I think these four posts (this one and the three before it) can be allowed to stand as an introduction, more ore less, to what I'm trying to do here. From here out, we'll start looking at various anti-FV arguments and see if they pass "the challenge."
7 comments:
Hi Xon,
I've been reading through your anti-anti-FV posts so as to try to get some answers to my questions.
I appreciate the way you've structured these pages.
A note something about the Arminian Remonstrants here:
They would actually NOT affirm A1; they might affirm A2; but certainly would affirm A3.
For the Remonstrants, who followed the governmental theory of election of Grotius, there was most definitely a "group of people whom God had predestined to salvation." Further, when Jesus died on the cross, he satsified God's generally, so that his wrath is placated towards that group (who "enjoy" Jesus' satisfaction).
HOWEVER,
The group itself was not an enumerated group. It was an empty container (much as in the RC concept of "the Church"). Membership in that empty container was on then "decreed" on the basis of God's foreknowledge of their choices, and people enter and leave it of their own free will.
Hence, though you and I would agree that Arminians "affirm" A1 and A2 as logical outcomes of their system, we would do so because we stipulate the meaning of "a group of people" to mean "an enumerated group of people".
At the same time, the Arminians would would deny A1 because they use an alternate definition of the word "group" (Actually, "church").
It's the "dog" problem all over again.
Here's source material on the Remonstrants.:
http://www.crivoice.org/creedremonstrants.html
Now, here's the deal for me: you and I are free to use words as we please...to a point. To two points, actually.
(1) The Scripture sets normative bounds on our word usage. Neither the FV nor the anti-FV have the right to use Scriptural terms like "elect" to mean something opposed to or not included in the Scriptural usage of that word, at least not within the context of theology (of course, no one objects to the phrase "Presidential election").
What I have in mind here is a preacher who might say, "I believe in election -- God gets a vote, the devil gets a vote, and you decide!"
We all agree that such a statement is an improper redefinition of "election", yes?
As it stands at this moment, I believe Wilkins' exegesis of Ephesians 1 to be flawed and impossible; in general, I find the procedure of attributing the entire contents of the letter to the entire church (as he does with both the Ephesians and Corinthians) to be odd. Hence, I suspect him of improperly redefining "election." But since I have not exhaustively investigated this possibility, I refuse to say for sure.
If my suspicions prove grounded, then I would say that Wilkins is not merely unConfessional, but unBiblical.
If not...well, that's what I'm here to find out.
(2) If I am speaking to a group of people, I have some limited but considerable obligation to speak in a language that is understandable.
To take a crass example, if I call my mother a b***h (looks nervously up for a lightning bolt), it does no good to protest that I was using an ancient Aztec word for "beautiful queen." She knows and I know that I was being deliberately provocative by using a word that she would hear offensively. (My mother, BTW, is a dear woman who spends her time on geneological research)
In like manner, it seems to me that the FV has a limited but considerable obligation to respect Reformed allergies to certain formulations. I suspect that they have not met that obligation.
Grace and peace,
Jeff Cagle
Jeff, thank you for your helpful and clarity-inducing comments.
As I confessed on the front end of the post, Arminianism is a rather 'vague' label. But even so, I appreciate that my formulations A1-A3 could have been better, esp. regarding the Remonstrants themselves. Clearly what I should have written in "A1" was that "there are no people" rather than "there is no group of people..."
Words, words, tricksy masters! But I really do appreciate you pointing out my own lack of precision, b/c any time it is pointed out by anyone (you, me, Mr. McGee) that language can be more precise and that confusion results when it is not, then I think the FV discussion will make progress.
Now, as to your claims about using words in unconventional ways, let me respond to your 2 points in reverse order if I may. Under your second point you say:
"In like manner, it seems to me that the FV has a limited but considerable obligation to respect Reformed allergies to certain formulations. I suspect that they have not met that obligation."
I remain skeptical that this obligation exists, your valiant attempt to illustrate it notwithstanding. The reason I am skeptical is that I don't see anything in the FV discussion that is analogous to the ostensible vulgarity of calling your mother that word. Using 'election' or 'baptismal regneration' in unconventional ways simply doesn't rise to that sort of level, and so frankly I don't see how any person who accepts a mantle of authority in an intellectual tradition like Reformed Christianity can claim 'allergies' to such phrases and on that basis refuse to read the man who used the allergenic phrase carefully and with understanding. In other words, unless we are literally talking about the kinds of vulgarities you mentioned in your analogy, we have no right to be allergic to any set of words per se. We must instead put on our thinking caps and get to the substance of the matter, regardless of what words are used. This strikes me as a reasonable expectation for any participant in a discussion about theology.
But for the sake of argument let me just grant your point and say that yes, FV men should have honored sacred rhetorical cows more than they have. The question is: do you believe that FV men deserve to be defrocked from their ministries, or removed from most Reformed denominations in the United States, for failing to meet this obligation? Having already observed your careful and judicious tone in other discussion, I know the answer to this question. You would never dream of kicking someone out of the PCA or anywhere else simply for failing to respect "Reformed allergies to certain formulations."
So clearely the 'case' against FV men has to be based on something else. If we all were held to the standard of always expressing ourselves clearly and never causing undue offense through our careless use of words, then who could stand? If FVers really are heretics (by standards of Reformed orthodoxy), then their problem must be about more than how they use words. There must be a problem in the concepts they express with those words.
Right?
For your point 1, I am a die hard biblicist but I find your claim that Scripture norms our word usage hard to swallow. You do restrict your claim to the "context of theology," but still I'm not sure we are justified in saying that words can only be used in the ways Scripture uses them.
For one thing, the issue when it comes to understanding Scripture is not one of asking "what words does Scripture use?" but "what concepts does Scripture communicate through the words it uses?" Scripture, after all, does not use any English words at all. We translate the Hebrew or the Greek into English words that allow us to understand the meaning as best we can. So Scripture uses the word 'dikaisune', but I don't see how it gives us any normative bounds on how we are allowed to use the word 'righteous'. Quite the contrary, we only use the word 'righteous' to translate 'dikaisune' becuase 'righteous'--in our current lingusitic climate of contemporary English--is the best English word we have to capture the meaning of 'dikaisune.' But if we started using 'righteous' to mean something else than it currently means, we might just start translating 'dikaisune' into a different English word. And I don't see how any of this, in principle, is remotely problematic. I mean, it does sound like a headache, but this is why I'm not a linguist or a translator. But in principle it seems clear that the words in one language 'float' against the meaning of words in another language. Like the dollar and the yen. And so Scripture in fact gives us no 'normative' guidance whatsoever as to what our various English words have to mean. Scripture tells us that there is a dikaisune that comes from God which is also given by God. But what is dikaisune? We study the original language and then use the best English word we have. Which happens to be (for the last few centuries, anyway) 'righteousness'. For now.
But suppose all the kids become obsessed with Bill and Ted's Excellent Adventure and start using the word 'righteous' to mean "cool/good/enjoyable", then the word 'righteous' will take on that connotation and even that denotation, in our contemporary language. There is no stopping it.
But if enough people start using 'righteous' this way, then it could affect our discussion of theology too. Words take on a life of their own. If 'righteous' starts meaning 'cool' then it will be hard to maintain a discussion of traditional Reformed dogamtics about righteousness without hearing that other meaning in our minds. At this point it might very well become appropriate to shift to another word. When we read 'righteous' in the Puritans, we will need to start saying "This is an Elizabethan English word that meant 'satisfactory moral standing under the law.'" Or sometihng like that. And if we want a shorthand for that definition in our day, we might start using a word other than 'righteous' b/c the darn kids have ruined 'righteous' with their Bill and Ted usage. But we can still follow what the Puritans meant by the word, and we can still have a meaningful discussion of these things.
Is there a problem here that I am not seeing? I just don't see how Scripture tells us what 'righteous' or any other word has to mean. It does tell us what 'dikaisune' means, but even here ancient languages were subject to lots of variant meanings and nuances. And so if Peter Leithart, for instance, studies Scriptural usages of 'righteousness' words in Hebrew and Greek and comes up with something a little different than what Reformed theology has traditionally said, what's the problem? Is there some nonequivocating contradiction between FV formulations and traditional Reformed formulations? What contradiction is that, then? Please name that tune. :-)
To speak to your example of 'election' (sorry, last thing):
"What I have in mind here is a preacher who might say, "I believe in election -- God gets a vote, the devil gets a vote, and you decide!"
We all agree that such a statement is an improper redefinition of "election", yes?"
Actually I don't quite agree. I agree that the preacher is incorrect. He is teaching error, and he is not using 'election' in a way that faithfully represents the meaning of Scriptural words like 'oridzo,' etc. So if he's claiming to be teaching the 'Scriptural doctrine of election', then he's mistaken. But the reason he's mistaken is not because he 'redefined' a word in a way that is inappropriate. I don't care how he defines a word, so long as it is clear enough that I can follow what he is saying. His error is that, once his own intended meaning is understood, it is clear that he is saying things which simply aren't true. He is wrong on the 'facts', not on his definition of a word.
It is simply not the case that God, the devil, and individual persons all play an equal role, modeled on a Democratic process, in deciding whether a person is saved or not (assuming that salvation is what this preacher is ultimately talking about). That just isn't true, whether you call it 'election' or anything else. The Scriptures plainly teach that salvation (another word that needs to be carefully defined: but here I just mean "going to Heaven when you die") depends entirely on the will of God, not of man or the devil. So, again, the preacher is simplhy asserting something that is false. But we can show that it is false no matter what particular words he uses. His definition of 'election' is not the issue.
That's how I see it at this point. Thoughts?
Hi Xon,
Hope you had a good Thanksgiving. We were up here in Philly with my wife's parents; turkey, kids, good times. I *finally* got to see NUMB3ERS for the first time.
Re: point 2. Because I don't have "The Federal Vision" here in Philly, I'll give a fuller response later. For now, I'll declare a presupposition and qualify a misunderstanding.
First presupposition to declare: I subscribe to a "fusion of horizons" theory of conversation. That is to say, communication happens when I am able to assess my viewpoint and package it into language that reconstructs the approximate picture in your own thinking. That is to say, communication happens when our mental horizons can "fuse" or interface via the medium.
This is what I attempt every day in my classroom(s) and also in pastoral situations, so for me it's both a theoretical and a practical construct.
Potential misunderstanding to head off: I think we agree that point #2 ("there is a limited but considerable obligation...") cannot be taken so far as to claim that violations of that obligation entail heretical content. To extend the metaphor, I was in no way implying that allergies necessarily indicate inherent food value.
And no, violations of that obligation (if not willful and repeated) are not a chargable offense, either.
Rather, I was speaking in a more pragmatic way, that has to do with how one goes about promoting unity in the knowledge of the Son of God. If truth is to be conveyed, unless one's goal is to speak prophetically to an apostate (cf. Matt. 10.5ff), one must convey the truth in a way that *can be heard by the hearers.*
One of my fundamental criticisms of the FV has to do with the way in which it has been conveyed. It has not At All been conveyed in a way likely to be well-understood. More when I have the book in front of me.
Jeff Cagle
BTW: I hear words in my head when I read. Are you "Kson", "Zon", "Ksone", "Zone", or "other"? At first I thought it was a clever abbreviation for "Christ on" as in Colossians 3. :)
For your point 1, I am a die hard biblicist but I find your claim that Scripture norms our word usage hard to swallow. You do restrict your claim to the "context of theology," but still I'm not sure we are justified in saying that words can only be used in the ways Scripture uses them.
I wouldn't say it like that. I would say rather that Scripture places normative bounds on what certain words mean.
I should say that on this point I'm heavily persuaded by John Frame. This essay is on a different topic, but it gets at something fundamental:
When we turn from God's words, we idolize human words. If Scripture is right, if verbal revelation does have divine authority, then it is Barth's view which encourages idolatry. For Barth's view would turn us away from proper deference to God's words, and would have us instead make a “basic commitment” to the truth of some other words – our own, perhaps, or those of scientists, or those of theologians. God and Biblical Language: Transcendence and Immanence
Frame is arguing two things at once here, but the aspect I'm interested in is this: given that God's words are given to us in Scripture, we have an obligation to (attempt to) understand the meaning of those words as the Holy Spirit intended, and then have a commitment not just to the concepts, but also to the words by which those concepts are packaged.
So returning to our pastor's example, he *is* in error, as you rightly say, for believing and communicating a wrong picture of salvation. He's wrong on the facts.
But also, he commits a second error because he preaches to the congregation something about *election* -- which word the congregation will read in their Bibles and wrongly think they know what it means BECAUSE of the explanation of election the pastor has given. He has "poisoned the well" wrt the Scriptural usage of the word "election."
And further, he has fallen into both errors because he has failed to read the Scriptures to determine how proorizo is used and therefore what it means when God uses it. His procedural error (which might be labeled "eisegesis") is to blow past the normative boundaries on the usage of proorizo, or as translated into English, election.
(Your point about translation and original languages is taken; I would take the normative boundaries to be "tighter" wrt to the words in the original languages, looser wrt words in translation.)
Put this point another way: in a vacuum, we might have infinite flexibility in our word use. Lewis Carroll has free reign.
But given that we have received communication from God, that communication must shape how we think about what those words mean. I cannot redefine the word "worship" to mean "whatever I'm doing on Sunday morning"; nor can I redefine the word "murder" to include all capital punishment.
And furthermore, because I operate within a culture, I have a further obligation to make some attempt to fuse horizons and communicate in language that makes sense. So my fellow man puts a different set of normative boundaries on my language use.
Does that make more sense?
Jeff Cagle
P.S. Perhaps this is a better way of saying it: if we use words differently from Scripture, it requires us to juggle two separate definitions in our heads and keep track of which one is in view at all times, lest we wrongly attribute our meaning to a given passage of Scripture. AND, when speaking about theology or Scripture, having two definitions requires us to reproduce those distinct definitions in the listener so that *he* does not wrongly read the Scripture using our new re-definition. In short, ignoring the range of Biblical usage is not wise.
Is there some nonequivocating contradiction between FV formulations and traditional Reformed formulations? What contradiction is that, then? Please name that tune. :-)
That is the real question. I think I may have IDed a couple, but I will hold fire until I'm sure. Certainly, I think there are fewer than are alleged.
Interestingly, I note that the SJC case documents are much more narrowly focused than the 2007 GA report; the concerns raised in those documents coincide well with the concerns I have.
Jeff Cagle
I'm sorry; just one more thought. Consider yourself a thought-provoking writer :)
The difficulty with the Arminians was in large part *because of* equivocation. They affirmed "election" (just not in the sense of Calvin or Luther). Had they used some other term, like "foreknowing acceptance" (translated into suitable 17th century Dutch) the Synod of Dort would likely have never been convened because the Remonstrants would likely have never received degrees.
There have been other instances of such equivocation throughout history; the preaching of Bultmann was notorious for being orthodox, so long as you had never read his printed works and thus understood what his words meant.
It is one of the contentions that the FV equivocates. I think that contention is wrong, but contains a hint towards a real problem.
JRC
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